Which of the following statements is correct?
The intervention threshold in women with no prior fracture cannot be set at the age-specific fracture probability
A different intervention threshold should be applied to men and women
Age-dependent intervention thresholds provide clinically appropriate and equitable access to treatment
FRAX probability is constant irrespective of the region
BMD alone is a good screening tool for determining an intervention threshold
IV bisphosphonates may be used as initial treatment in the majority of cases
All women undergoing treatment for osteoporosis other than anabolic therapy should consume calcium and vitamin D in their diet or via supplements
For patients at very high risk of fracture, the first-line option is IV antiresorptive therapy
In patient at high risk of fracture there is no need to monitor compliance with treatment, as patients are genuinely motivated by their risk of fracture
It is recommended that diagnostic thresholds be considered as intervention thresholds
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
In a patient at imminent high risk of fracture, a bone-forming agent followed by anti-resorptive treatment is recommended
Withdrawal of denosumab is associated with a rebound in bone turnover
Oral bisphosphonates may be used as initial treatment in the majority of cases
In women intolerant to oral BPs, IV BPs or denosumab are the most appropriate alternatives
Fracture risk does not need to be reassessed after a new fracture, regardless of when it occurs
What is the recommended first-line pharmacological treatment for most patients at risk of fragility fractures?
Osteoanabolic agents
Bisphosphonates
Menopause hormone therapy
SERMs
Tibolone
Which osteoporosis treatment is specifically recommended as the first-line option for postmenopausal women at very high risk of fractures?
Denosumab
Zoledronic acid
Raloxifene